The definition is as follows:
“An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage.
Note: The inability to communicate verbally does not negate the possibility that an individual is experiencing pain and is in need of appropriate pain-relieving treatment. Pain is always subjective. Each individual learns the application of the word through experiences related to injury in early life. Biologists recognize that those stimuli which cause pain are liable to damage tissue. Accordingly, pain is that experience we associate with actual or potential tissue damage. It is unquestionably a sensation in a part or parts of the body, but it is also always unpleasant and therefore also an emotional experience. Experiences which resemble pain but are not unpleasant, e.g., pricking, should not be called pain. Unpleasant abnormal experiences (dysesthesias) may also be pain but are not necessarily so because, subjectively, they may not have the usual sensory qualities of pain.
Many people report pain in the absence of tissue damage or any likely pathophysiological cause; usually this happens for psychological reasons. There is usually no way to distinguish their experience from that due to tissue damage if we take the subjective report. If they regard their experience as pain and if they report it in the same ways as pain caused by tissue damage, it should be accepted as pain. This definition avoids tying pain to the stimulus. Activity induced in the nociceptor and nociceptive pathways by a noxious stimulus is not pain, which is always a psychological state, even though we may well appreciate that pain most often has a proximate physical cause”.
Questions:
1. The first sentence in the defintion associates pain with tissue pathology. What follows in the Note refers to the ‘subjectivity’ of pain. There seems to be an epistemic priority in play between the ‘objective’ measure of pain in terms of tissue insult and the ‘subjective’ criterion of when to categorize an experience as pain. The definition appears to accord authority on the nature and amount of pain to the patient (first-person authority). If this is correct, then pain researchers are studying the objectively observable causes of a subjective experience, but not pain characterised as an objective physical state. According to the definition, all objective measures of pain (eg, neuroscientific explanations) are logically prior to the subjective ones. Is this analysis accurate? Not quite. The IASP definition is compatible with neuroscientific discovery of pain experiences as states of the brain; for then objective measures will likely have not less than equal epsitemic authority. Still, it is curious the definition grants this, but leaves open the question of the nature of pain.
2. What might explain the epistemic priority in the IASP definition? I suggest that it is the first-person authority (near-infallability) of pain self-report. Consider the statements (1) and (1*):
(1) I am in pain.
(1*) Susan is in pain.
What does ‘being true’ amount to in these statements? I think it amounts to something quite different. The truth of (1) is guaranteeed by truthfulness, since it is not liable to mistake or error, only to insincerity. I give three reasons for this claim:
- (1*) can be verified, but not (1). Is there such a thing as my ‘finding out’ that I am in pain or ‘recognizing’ pain from my sensations?
- (1) cannot allow of error or doubt, but (1*) can. The subject of pain cannot misidentify himself/herself or misapply pain language (‘I thought I had a pain, but it was an itch, and it was Susan’s, not mine’ seems nonsensical);
- (1) does not express a knowledge claim, but (1*) does.



4 comments
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September 21, 2009 at 6:25 am
adiemusfree
I’m no philosopher, but my reading of the IASP definition suggests to me that it deliberately removes the need for a direct link between nociception or tissue damage and the experience of pain – the definition states that ‘associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms…’
- provided that the individual believes (and then reports or somehow demonstrates) that he or she has pain, then by definition it is their experience
Up until this definition, it was believed that to have pain one inevitably HAD to have tissue damage – this definition only requires that the person believes the pain is associated with such damage.
Recall that the definition was developed prior to knowledge of the neurophysiology of pain (at that time I believe there was still an ongoing search for a ‘pain centre’ in the brain), so this advance was a major step forward – instead of searching for a physical ’cause’ for pain, instead the person experiencing the pain was the only entity able to determine whether pain was experienced and how much.
Even if the definition is revised at some point in the future, the legacy of this definition is evidenced by the huge leap forward in acceptance of the lack of a one-to-one relationship between nociception and the experience of pain. At the same time the subsequent increase in treatments that help people who have pain but where ‘the source’ is inaccessible or unidentified has to be a major progression from the prior dichotomous view of ‘either physical or mental’ pain.
September 22, 2009 at 5:40 am
Simon van Rysewyk
Hi there,
Many thanks for your comment. I am aware of the issues you bring up, and agree with you on all points. Certainly, the current IASP definition represents progress over the once dominant sensory model of pain, proposed by Descartes 350 years ago.
In my post, I claimed that the IASP definition appears to accord authority on the nature and amount of pain to the patient (first-person authority). Hence, all objective measures of pain (eg, neuroscientific explanations) are logically prior to the subjective ones. Then, I argued that the putative epistemic priority in the IASP definition arises from the first-person authority (near-infallability) of pain self-report. In fact, many pain studies correlate phenomenology with neural events. To this I add a further claim: There are not two distinct things here, but two levels of epistemic access to one and the same thing.
Sincerely,
Simon
October 1, 2009 at 7:20 pm
adiemusfree
It took me a while to ‘get it’ – but I think I do now! Thanks.
Bronnie
October 4, 2009 at 9:36 pm
Simon van Rysewyk
That’s wonderful.
Talk soon,
Simon